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does <> imply () or are pairs special?

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From:
Juerd
Date:
March 12, 2005 12:40
Subject:
does <> imply () or are pairs special?
Message ID:
20050312204046.GO30120@c4.convolution.nl
    %foo<bar>

is really

    %foo{'bar'}

and
    :foo<bar>

is actually

    :foo('bar')

naturally,

    :foo<bar>, 'baz'

is

    :foo('bar'), 'baz'

but is

    reverse<bar>, 'baz'

then
    
    reverse('bar'), 'baz'

? And if that is so, then is

    reverse <bar>, 'baz'

any different?


Juerd
-- 
http://convolution.nl/maak_juerd_blij.html
http://convolution.nl/make_juerd_happy.html 
http://convolution.nl/gajigu_juerd_n.html

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