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Postings from August 2010
Quoth public@khwilliamson.com (karl williamson): > Aristotle Pagaltzis wrote: > > * Ben Morrow <ben@morrow.me.uk> [2010-08-05 20:35]: > >> * Aristotle Pagaltzis <pagaltzis@gmx.de> [2010-08-05 19:45]: > >>> > >>> If the meaning of `(?~:)` is not allowed to change, then it > >>> will no longer be an accurate representation, so patterns > >>> will have to stringify to `(?~Xy:)`. > >> Wrong. (?~:), with no further flags, means 'The default, > >> whatever that happens to be in this version of perl'. > > > > Don’t tell me – tell Karl. :-) > > I still don't think I grok your meaning. What Ben meant, I trust, is > that yes the meaning of the tilde does change as new flags with defaults > are added. It changes to implicitly incorporate the default behavior of > those flags. We will have bent over backwards to keep those added > default behaviors from affecting existing programs, so it should not > matter to them that the meaning of the ~ "changed". That's the whole > point of this construct. They can once change to ~ (or whatever it > ended up being called), and be done with it. Yes, exactly. The 'expansion' of (?~i:) as a (?i-xsm:) expression changes, but the semantics implied do not. BenThread Previous | Thread Next